ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Exam Questions Pdf & 8020 Test Training Demo & ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Test Online Engine
ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Exam Questions Pdf & 8020 Test Training Demo & ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Test Online Engine
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PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Sample Questions (Q27-Q32):
NEW QUESTION # 27
For which of the following reasons did the Turnbull Report have a significant impact on risk governance?
- A. It was the first report to list the board as a proposed governance structure.
- B. It was the first report to require a board to take specific account of risks and control systems for risks.
- C. It defined the concept of risk governance for the insurance industry.
- D. It was a report that led to the establishment of the US Federal Reserve.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Step 1: What Is the Turnbull Report?
The Turnbull Report (1999) was a UK corporate governance report that set risk management expectations for boards.
It required companies to assess and manage risks effectively as part of corporate governance.
Step 2: Why Option C is Correct
Turnbull was the first report to mandate that boards must consider risk management in corporate governance.
This report established risk assessment as a board-level responsibility.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Defined risk governance for insurance") → Incorrect because Turnbull applied to all sectors, not just insurance.
Option B ("First report to propose board structure") → Incorrect because corporate boards existed long before Turnbull.
Option D ("Led to the US Federal Reserve") → Incorrect because the Federal Reserve was established in 1913, long before Turnbull.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Corporate Governance Guidelines - Highlights Turnbull's role in board-level risk oversight.
UK Corporate Governance Code - Turnbull contributed to defining board risk responsibilities.
Final Conclusion:
The Turnbull Report was the first to require boards to consider risks in corporate governance, making Option C the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 28
For the WorldCom case, what was one of the causes of the failure?
- A. The lack of a CRO during the final IPO.
- B. A rapid pace of acquisitions and poor integration of acquired companies.
- C. Risk models that did not reflect loosened underwriting standards of mortgage originators.
- D. Unauthorized trading in derivatives.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Step 1: Understanding the WorldCom Case
WorldCom was one of the largest U.S. telecom companies before its collapse in 2002 due to fraudulent accounting practices and poor risk management.
The company expanded aggressively through acquisitions but failed to integrate them properly, leading to financial mismanagement and accounting fraud.
Step 2: Why Option C is Correct
WorldCom acquired over 60 companies in a short period without proper integration.
This masked financial problems and led to $11 billion in fraudulent accounting adjustments.
PRMIA and risk management frameworks stress that poor integration after rapid acquisitions increases operational and financial risks.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Risk models and mortgage underwriting") → Incorrect because this describes the 2008 financial crisis, not WorldCom.
Option B ("Lack of a CRO during IPO") → Incorrect because WorldCom was well-established before its fraud-CRO absence was not the main issue.
Option D ("Unauthorized derivatives trading") → Incorrect because WorldCom's failure was due to fraudulent accounting, not derivatives.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Corporate Governance Guidelines - Discusses risks of poor post-merger integration.
SEC Investigation on WorldCom (2002) - Identified fraudulent accounting due to failed acquisitions.
NEW QUESTION # 29
When a control is found to be ineffective, which of the following steps should be take next?
- A. An action plan should be designed to close the gap.
- B. Risks should be re-assessed to determine if there is the appropriate level of control assessment.
- C. The controls should be re-assessed during the next cycle to determine if they are still ineffective.
- D. Risks should be re-assessed to determine if there can be an exception for the level of control assessment.
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a control is found to be ineffective, the primary objective is to remediate the deficiency by implementing corrective measures. PRMIA (Professional Risk Managers' International Association) guidance, aligned with best practices in risk governance, emphasizes a structured approach to handling control deficiencies. Below is a detailed breakdown based on PRMIA risk management principles:
Step 1: Identify and Assess the Ineffective Control
A control is deemed ineffective when it fails to mitigate the identified risks to an acceptable level.
The root cause of the failure must be determined through a Control Effectiveness Review (CER).
PRMIA recommends control testing and incident analysis to assess the severity of the control failure.
Step 2: Develop an Action Plan to Address the Control Deficiency
PRMIA best practices state that risk management should prioritize corrective actions rather than delaying remediation.
The organization must define an action plan to close the gap, which includes:
Revising or strengthening the control mechanisms.
Implementing new controls, if necessary.
Assigning responsibility for remediation to control owners.
Setting deadlines for resolution.
This step aligns with PRMIA's Risk Governance Framework, which emphasizes proactive risk management.
Step 3: Implement Corrective Measures and Monitor Progress
Once an action plan is designed, the organization should execute the corrective actions.
PRMIA's Risk Monitoring Guidelines require regular follow-ups and testing to ensure the control is functioning correctly.
The effectiveness of the remediation should be validated through post-implementation review and ongoing control testing.
Step 4: Re-Assess Risks and Control Effectiveness
Once corrective measures are in place, the organization should re-evaluate risks to confirm that the issue is resolved.
The risk assessment process should be updated to reflect the changes in the control environment.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?
Option A: "Risks should be re-assessed to determine if there is the appropriate level of control assessment." While risk re-assessment is a good practice, it does not directly address the ineffective control.
PRMIA guidelines prioritize closing the control gap first before reassessing risks.
Option C: "The controls should be re-assessed during the next cycle to determine if they are still ineffective." Waiting until the next assessment cycle delays remediation, which could expose the organization to unmitigated risks.
PRMIA risk frameworks recommend immediate corrective action when a control is found to be ineffective.
Option D: "Risks should be re-assessed to determine if there can be an exception for the level of control assessment." PRMIA does not support exceptions for ineffective controls unless there is a well-documented risk acceptance process.
A control failure should be remediated rather than seeking exceptions.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Risk Governance Framework - Defines the importance of immediate corrective actions for control failures.
PRMIA Risk Monitoring Guidelines - Stresses continuous monitoring and validation of controls.
PRMIA Risk Management Standards - Recommends a structured action plan for ineffective controls.
PRMIA Operational Risk Framework - Emphasizes the need to close control gaps to maintain a strong risk posture.
Final Conclusion:
According to PRMIA risk management best practices, when a control is found to be ineffective, the best course of action is to design and implement an action plan to remediate the issue (Option B). This approach ensures that the organization mitigates risk promptly and maintains a strong control environment.
NEW QUESTION # 30
In operational resilience, what is impact tolerance?
- A. Impact tolerance is a firm's risk capacity statement.
- B. Impact tolerance is a firm's tolerance for disruption to a particular business service.
- C. Impact tolerance is a firm's risk appetite statement.
- D. Impact tolerance is a firm's tolerance for disruption to a particular business process.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Impact Tolerance is a key concept in Operational Resilience, defined as the ability of a firm to withstand, respond to, and recover from disruptions. According to PRMIA and global regulatory frameworks (such as the Bank of England's Operational Resilience Framework), impact tolerance is specifically tied to business services rather than processes.
Step 1: Defining Impact Tolerance
Impact tolerance is the maximum acceptable level of disruption to an important business service, beyond which there would be intolerable harm to customers, financial markets, or regulatory obligations.
It is not the same as risk appetite or risk capacity, as those deal with broader organizational risk exposure.
Step 2: Why Business Services Matter
PRMIA defines business services as end-to-end services delivered to clients and stakeholders, such as payments processing, trade execution, or loan approvals.
Disruptions to these services directly impact customers and financial stability, making business service resilience the core focus of impact tolerance.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("tolerance for disruption to a particular business process")
Incorrect because impact tolerance applies to services, not just internal processes.
Option C ("a firm's risk appetite statement")
Incorrect because risk appetite focuses on how much risk a firm is willing to take, while impact tolerance is about surviving disruptions.
Option D ("a firm's risk capacity statement")
Incorrect because risk capacity is the maximum level of risk a firm can bear, which is broader than business service disruptions.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Operational Resilience Guidelines - Defines impact tolerance as a service-based metric.
Bank of England's Operational Resilience Framework - Establishes impact tolerance as a limit on business service disruption.
Final Conclusion:
Impact tolerance focuses on business services, not just internal processes or risk appetite, making Option B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following is not the purpose or benefit of a Risk Appetite statement?
- A. Assists with Strategic discussions.
- B. Risk management standards and resources are likely to be improved.
- C. Establishes the maximum risk that the organization can stand.
- D. The governing body articulates its expectations.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Step 1: Understanding a Risk Appetite Statement
Risk Appetite is the amount of risk an organization is willing to take to achieve its objectives.
A Risk Appetite Statement (RAS) communicates risk tolerance levels and management expectations.
Step 2: Why Option C is Incorrect
Risk Capacity (not Risk Appetite) defines the maximum risk the firm can withstand.
Risk Appetite is about willingness to take risk, not the absolute limit.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Correct
Option A ("Improves risk management standards") → Correct, as RAS helps define better risk management.
Option B ("Governing body articulates expectations") → Correct, as RAS is approved by the board.
Option D ("Assists strategic discussions") → Correct, as RAS guides decision-making.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Risk Appetite Framework - Differentiates between Risk Appetite and Risk Capacity.
Basel III Governance Principles - Encourages organizations to establish clear risk appetite statements.
Final Conclusion:
Risk Appetite does not establish the maximum risk the firm can withstand-that is Risk Capacity, making Option C the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 32
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